Conference lgp30::christian-perspective

	Then Jesus went to Nazareth, where he had been brought up, and
on the Sabbath he went as usual to the synagogue.  He stood up to read the
Scriptures and was handed the book of the prophet Isaiah.  He unrolled the
scroll and found the place where it is written,

	"The Spirit of the Lord is upon me,
	  because he has chosen me to bring good news
	   to the poor.
	He has sent me to proclaim liberty to the captives
	  and recovery of sight to the blind,
	to set free the oppressed
	  and announce the time has come
	  when the Lord will save his people."

	Jesus rolled up the scroll, gave it back to the attendant and
sat down.  All the people in the synagogue had their eyes fixed on him,
as he said to them, "This passage of scripture has come true today, as
you heard it being read."  (Luke 4.16-21)

	Was Jesus quoting this post-exilic passage from Isaiah out of
context?  What do you think?

Peace,
Richard

Hi Richard,

My quick answer is that Jesus did not quote Scripture out of context.
He gave new context to Scripture, transcended context, that sort of thing. 

He brought a human intimacy to Scripture that may have been shocking to some 
20 centuries ago.  It may still be shocking to some.  

Peace,

Jim

    Hey, Jim.  I *like* what you said!
    
    Peace,
    Richard

    re:400.01
    
    Richard,
    
    Common consensus is that Jesus was quoting from the Septuagint, a Greek
    translation of the O.T. in vogue at the time. Hence it was not a
    misqoute or out of context but merely the difference in the
    translation. 
    
    
    Lisa

    Re: .4
    
    The passage in Isaiah addresses the people of post-exilic times.
    Jesus either gave the passage new context, as Jim pointed out (.2),
    or Jesus took it out of context.  Quoting the Septuagint would not
    have made a crucial difference.
    
    Peace,
    Richard

Re:  400.0

  >Was Jesus quoting this post-exilic passage from Isaiah out
  >of context?

No.  

  >What do you think?

I think God knew what he was doing.  Do you think so?  :-)

As I read the passage, I am struck by something.  There are a
number of references in chapter 61 to "me" or "I".  However,
sometimes "I" is explicitly meant as the LORD.  At other
times, it is undefined (but presumably Isaiah?)  It would be
an interesting theory (backed by Jesus' use of the quote) that
these verses were originally written from Jesus' perspective - where
he both was the LORD and the one who delighted in the LORD.  Of
course, what we really need to do is study the context in great
depth.  I remember spending quite a while on this particular
quote once and it's context (probably in my "Old Testament in
the New" class), but I've long since forgotten the specifics
surrounding this quote.  If you wish, I could spend several hours
reading the immediate context, tracking down references and
get a feel for exactly what was being said in these particular
verses.  However, there is so much to do (both at work and in
notesfiles :-) ) that my tendency is not to bother.  The real
issue isn't this one quote (I expect).

On the broader issue of the use of Scripture within Scripture,
this is indeed a question worth exploring.  There are numerous instances
of Scripture being quoted in the New Testament in a different way
than they were originally used in the Old Testament.  Jesus does
this and the New Testament authors do this.

Each person needs to make a decision for himself/herself as to whether
or not God would possibly write this way and reveal Himself in this
way.  This is not something that can be proven that God would or
would not do (at least I have no idea how anyone would go about
proving that God either would or would not do this - other than the
obvious fact that He did do it :-) ); it is something that must be 
accepted or rejected by faith.  Each of us can pick and choose what
we want to believe.  Personally, I choose to believe the Living God
of the Bible.

Collis

    The only way you could say Jesus took scripture out of context would be
    to deny that He Himself is fully God and therefore anything He quotes
    from His prior revelation is to correct man's misappropriation of
    earlier revelation or to further clarify and declare Himself.
    
    We often do the same thing when we've been misunderstood.
    
    Farewell, I have been TFSO'd and while this is the only day that I've
    been into this current rendition of CHRISTIAN..., I have been an
    occasional participant for many years.
    
    Love in Christ and the fervent prayer that many would continue to come
    to a personal, saving relationship with Jesus Christ through this
    media.
    
    Dave Rubenking
    11814 16th Ave. N.W.
    Gig Harbor, Wa. 98332
    

    This is an interesting topic as there is another passage I always
    wondered if Jesus took out of context.
    
    "The Jews answered him saying, For a good work we stone thee not, but
    for blasphemy; and because that thou being a man, makest thyself God.
    Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, ye are
    gods?"   John 10:33,34.
    
    In a sense, wasn't Jesus trying to compare apples to oranges?  The Jews
    charged Him claiming to be The One True God.  Jesus tried to justify
    by asking "Doesn't the law say that I said, ye are gods (small G)"
    The pharisees were looked upon as small gods in the days of old;
    however, they were never looked upon as God.  And all the more, they
    didn't buy it and still tried to kill him, but he escaped. 
    Any feedback on this?!
    
    Jack