[Search for users] [Overall Top Noters] [List of all Conferences] [Download this site]

Conference rusure::math

Title:Mathematics at DEC
Moderator:RUSURE::EDP
Created:Mon Feb 03 1986
Last Modified:Fri Jun 06 1997
Last Successful Update:Fri Jun 06 1997
Number of topics:2083
Total number of notes:14613

1392.0. "field theory question" by COOKIE::MURALI () Mon Feb 25 1991 16:10

    I have a question from field theory.
    
    Let F be a finite field with characteristic p (p is prime) and
    |F| = p^n where n is an integer > 0.
    
    Let f(x) be a polynomial in F[x] and let c be a root of f(x).
    Prove that c^p is also a root of f(x). I know the proof
    for the case when n = 1, but dont know a general proof.
    
    Thanks,
    
    Murali.
T.RTitleUserPersonal
Name
DateLines
1392.1GUESS::DERAMODan D'EramoMon Feb 25 1991 20:3450
>> Let F be a finite field with characteristic p (p is prime) and
>> |F| = p^n where n is an integer > 0.
        
        The map taking an element b of F into b^p is a field
        isomorphism (from F to F, so it is also called an
         automorphism) leaving 0,1,...,p-1 fixed and moving
        everything else.
        
        If f(x) is a polynomial in F and a,b are in F with
        a = f(b), then as b -> b^p is a field isomorphism you
        will have a^p = g(b^p), where the polynomial g is what
        you get by replacing each coefficient c of f(x) with c^p.
        
        If the coefficients of f(x) are all in 0,1,...,p-1 and if
        a = 0, then f = g and a^p = 0 so 0 = f(b^p) as well.
        
        The claim in .0 is that f(b) = 0 implies f(b^p) = 0 for
        arbitrary polynomials f(x) in F[x], and is false.  For
        example, consider p = 2, F = {0,1,a,a+1} where
        a^2 + a + 1 = 0.  Let f(x) be x + a.  Then f(a) = 0 but
        f(a^2) = f(a + 1) = 1.
        
        So you do need to restrict f(x) to be in (Z/p)[x], not
        F[x].  Given that, proving .0 reduces to proving the
        statement made in the first paragraph.
        
        So let h(b) = b^p.  To prove h is an automorphism you must
        show h(0) = 0, h(1) = 1, h(a + b) = h(a) + h(b), and
        h(ab) = h(a)h(b).  The three easy cases are
        
        	h(0) = 0^p = 0
        	h(1) = 1^p = 1
        	h(ab) = (ab)^p = (a^p)(b^p) = h(a)h(b)
        
        The almost easy case is
        
        	h(a+b) = (a+b)^p
        		= a^p + terms with coefficients dividible by p + b^p
        		(using known facts about the binomial expansion)
        		= a^p + b^p
        		= h(a) + h(b)
        
        So it's an automorphism.  As F is a field the polynomial
        x^p - x has at most p zeroes, and by Fermat's little
        theorem a^p - a = 0 (mod p) for a = 0,1,...,p-1.  That
        establishes the rest of what was claimed in the first
        paragraph.
        
        Dan
        
1392.3GUESS::DERAMODan D'EramoTue Feb 26 1991 13:2310
1392.4GUESS::DERAMODan D'EramoThu Feb 28 1991 13:0720
        re .1,
        
>>        So let h(b) = b^p.  To prove h is an automorphism you must
>>        show h(0) = 0, h(1) = 1, h(a + b) = h(a) + h(b), and
>>        h(ab) = h(a)h(b).
        
        Actually, that just proves h is a homomorphism of F into
        itself.  To show it is an isomorphism you must also show
        that it is a bijection.  However, that result isn't used
        in the proof that f(c^p) = 0.  The fact that F is finite
        isn't used, either.  So if the root c of f(x) isn't
        assumed to be in F, then let K be the unique (up to
        isomorphism) algebraic completion of F and let c be any
        zero of f(x) in K.  Then h(a) = a^p is a field
        homomorphism of K into itself that leaves each of
        0,1,...,p-1 fixed, h maps F into F, and for any
        polynomial f(x) in (Z/p)[x] and f(c) = 0 then h(f(c)) =
        f(h(c)) = f(c^p) = h(0) = 0.
        
        Dan