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Conference rusure::math

Title:Mathematics at DEC
Moderator:RUSURE::EDP
Created:Mon Feb 03 1986
Last Modified:Fri Jun 06 1997
Last Successful Update:Fri Jun 06 1997
Number of topics:2083
Total number of notes:14613

381.0. "Related Rate Problem" by HOMBRE::MCMENEMY () Wed Nov 20 1985 11:40

The following is a related rate problem that is giving me a hard time. I
have the answer from by calculus book, but I don't see how it was solved. 
Could someone take a look at it for me. Thanks in advance,

			  			Mike


	A beacon which makes one revolution every 10 sec is located on
	a ship 4 kilometers (km) from a straight shoreline. How fast is the
	beam moving along the shoreline when it makes as angle of 45 degrees
	with the shore?

T.RTitleUserPersonal
Name
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381.1GALLO::APPELLOFWed Nov 20 1985 12:0715
  /  o
 / 45             Shoreline
/____________________________________________
\   o  !
 \45   !            Tangential velocity of beam = (2*pi)*(4)*(1/10) km/sec
  \    !4 km                                    = (4*pi/5)
   \   !            Vector component of beam parallel to shore = 
    \  !                                                         o
     \ !                                        = (4*pi/5)*cos(45 )
      \!                                        = (4*pi/5)*(sqrt(2)/2)
       Ship                                     = 1.777 km/sec

Hope I got my algebra right.  NCR (no calculus required)

381.2HOMBRE::MCMENEMYWed Nov 20 1985 12:259
The answer in my text book, is not what your answer is!!. However, I dont
known where you went wrong. If you want me to place the answer in a reply
to this note, tell me so.

		Your diagram does give a better idea of what is going on.


					Mike

381.3LATOUR::APPELLOFWed Nov 20 1985 12:5241
What a sap I am!  I used the wrong value for the length of the beam.
What follows is the reply from the kind soul who pointed that out to me:

From:	GRUMAN::REILLY       "Matt Reilly LTN2-2/C05 (dtn) 229-6994" 20-NOV-1985 09:28
To:	GALLO::APPELLOF,REILLY      
Subj:	Related Rate Problem

Hmmm,

	I get something different....


	The distance from the light to the shoreline  when the beam
is at an angle to the shore is 4 * sqrt(2).

	The speed of the point of light is w * r where w is the 
angular velocity and r is the distance from the source of the light
to the point.  This gives us the tangential speed

	s = w * r = 2 * pi / 10   *  4 * sqrt(2) 

		  = 4 * sqrt(2) * pi / 5

	Taking the component along the shoreline

	s / cos(45 deg) = 4 * pi * sqrt(2) * 2 / 5 * sqrt(2)

	                = 8 * pi / 5

			= 5.0265 km/sec

	Is this right?

	(I think your problem is in the way you calculated the
tangential velocity of the beam.  When the beam is at 45 degrees
to the shoreline, r = 4 * sqrt(2) not 4.)


						matt


381.4LATOUR::APPELLOFWed Nov 20 1985 12:5914
Boy are we confused!  The math muscles are creaky today.

How about:

Tangential velocity = (2*pi/10)*4*sqrt(2)  as in previous response.
                                                     o
Velocity along shoreline = (2*pi/10)*4*sqrt(2)*cos(45 )

Multiply by cos(45), don't divide.

Final answer:  4*pi/5

Are we there yet?

381.5PIPER::REILLYWed Nov 20 1985 13:1212
I can see it now....  Soon to appear in a journal near you....


	AN ITERATIVE METHOD FOR THE SOLUTION OF TRIGONOMETRY PROBLEMS


You are right...   Multiply by cos don't divide.

								matt
(GEEZ, I think I'll just strap myself into my chair and put away any
sharp objects...)

381.6HOMBRE::MCMENEMYWed Nov 20 1985 13:239
Matt's answer is correct, the answer is		8*PI
                                                ----  Km/sec.
						 5

Can someone show me how this answer can be derived by using derivatives?


						Thanks Mike

381.7LATOUR::APPELLOFWed Nov 20 1985 14:1821
Wait a minute!  I thought it was 4*pi/5.  I'm so confused.

For a derivative point of view, how about this:
      
   <- x ->
__________
\        !                    tan(theta) = x/4  by definition, so
 \       !
  \      !                         x = 4 * tan(theta)
   \     ! 4 km
    \    !                        dx      d (tan(theta))
     \   !                        -- = 4* --------------
      \  !                        dt          dt
       \ !
        \! <- angle theta                        d (theta)
        ship                      You know that  --------- = (2*pi/10) rad/sec
                                                   dt

So a simple application of the chain rule at theta = (pi/4) should give
you the answer. (if you do the algebra right (ouch :-)))

381.8PIPER::REILLYWed Nov 20 1985 16:2727
This note is really from Tom Eggers.

Let Theta be angle of light beam off-normal to shore.
Let x be distance from where normal intersects shore to
	where beam hits shore.

Then:	tan (theta) = x/4km

	x = 4km * tan(theta)

	v = dx/dt = 4km * sec(theta)**2 * d(theta)/dt

When beam makes 45 degrees with shore, sec(theta)**2 = 2

Therefore:

	v = 4km * 2 * 2pi/10	=	8pi/5 km/sec

This method does use calculus (a slight disadvantage), but it
avoids any use of the length of the beam, the tangential velocity,
or converting the tangential velocity to shoreline velocity.

Now, what is the speed of the beam along the shore assuming that
light has a finite velocity. Perhaps change the light house into
a fog horn and consider the rate the noise propogates along the
shore.

381.9HOMBRE::MCMENEMYWed Nov 20 1985 16:3157
having already typed in this file and then finding reply .8 I fiqured I
might as write it. Thanks again for everyones help.



Instead of using the chain rule, i found it easier to use implicit
differentiation.
      

tan(theta) = x/4  by definition, so

x = 4 * tan(theta)

using implicit differentiation,


dx      	     	  d(theta)
-- = 4* [ sec**2(theta)] --------
dt          		    dt

sec**2(theta) = ( 1/ cos(theta))**2

cos(theta) = .7071
sec**2(theta) = (1/.7071)**2  = 2.0

dx		d(theta)
-- = 4 * ( 2)	--------
dt		   dt


	      d(theta)	  2*PI
we known that -------- =  ---- sec
		 dt  	   10


dx		2*PI
-- = 4 * ( 2)	----  sec
dt		 10


dx	16*PI	
-- = 	---- km sec    or
dt	 10 	


the final answer ,

dx	8*PI	
-- = 	---- km sec    
dt	 5 	

				Thanks in setting up the equations
					correctly!!
						
						Mike

			
381.10LATOUR::APPELLOFThu Nov 21 1985 10:504
After some thought, I have decided that my first method with no calculus
is totally wrong.  The derivative method turns out correctly, and actually
is easier to understand.  Sorry about that.