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Conference rusure::math

Title:Mathematics at DEC
Moderator:RUSURE::EDP
Created:Mon Feb 03 1986
Last Modified:Fri Jun 06 1997
Last Successful Update:Fri Jun 06 1997
Number of topics:2083
Total number of notes:14613

960.0. "A problem in geometry/analysis" by HPSTEK::XIA () Sun Oct 30 1988 23:12

    Take the unit circle S1 in the plane,i.e., the set of points 
    
    (x , x ) satisfying:
      1   2
    
     
                 2     2
    		x  +  x  =  1 
                 1     2      
    
    Let R be the set of real numbers.  Let f: S1-->R be a continuous 
    function from S1 into R.  Prove there exists a point x in S1 such that:
    
    		f(x) = f(-x)
    
    i.e., there is a pair of antipodal points which is mapped to the same
    point.
    Eugene 
T.RTitleUserPersonal
Name
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960.138863::DERAMODaniel V. {AITG,ZFC}:: D'EramoSun Oct 30 1988 23:4124
     A new problem!  Just what I was looking for. :-)
     
     solution follows
     
     Let g(x) = f(x) - f(-x)
     
     f is continuous, and so are both f(-x) and g.
     
     Since S1 is compact, the image f(S1) is compact, and
     therefore the image has a maximum point fMAX [let x1 be
     such that f(x1) = fMAX] and a minimum point fmin [let
     x2 on the circle be such that f(x2) = fmin].
     
     Now g(x1) = f(x1) - f(-x1) >= 0 because f(x1) is as high
     as f goes.  Likewise g(x2) = f(x2) - f(-x2) <= 0 because
     f(x2) is as low as f goes.
     
     Since g is a continuous function from the connected set
     S1 its image is also connected, and so there is a point
     x on the circle such that g(x) takes on the intermediate
     value 0.  For any such point x it must be the case that
     f(x) = f(-x).
     
     Dan
960.27413::XIAMon Oct 31 1988 01:0427
    re .1:
    
    Well done, Dan.  That proof is very clever.  Now for a some what
    harder problem:
                                3
    Take the unit sphere S2 in R , i.e., the set of points 
    
    (x , x , x ) satisfying:
      1   2   3
    
     
                 2     2     2
    		x  +  x  +  x   =  1 
                 1     2     3
         2                                                         
    Let R  be the set of all the points on the plane .  Let 
             2                                        2
    f: S2-->R  be a continuous function from S2 into R .  Prove there 
    exists a point x in S2 such that:
    
    		f(x) = f(-x)
    
    i.e., there is a pair of antipodal points which is mapped to the same
    point.                       
    
    Eugene 
                              
960.3AITG::DERAMODaniel V. {AITG,ZFC}:: D'EramoMon Oct 31 1988 15:167
     Thanks.  What was the unclever proof?
     
     I'm working on the problem in .2 -- show there are two
     points at opposite ends of the earth with both the same
     temperature and humidity. :-)
     
     Dan 
960.4HPSTEK::XIAMon Oct 31 1988 16:4718
    re .3
    >Thanks.  What was the unclever proof?
     
    I am not aware of any other elementary proof of the theorem.
    
    > I'm working on the problem in .2 -- show there are two
    > points at opposite ends of the earth with both the same
    > temperature and humidity. :-)
     
    That is a very nice way of looking at it.  Hmmm.  It can also be
    said about temperature and pressure.  Wind speed and pressure. 
    Wow, theoretical math is useful after all :-) :-).
    Eugene
    
    As to the solution of .0.  Does that mean if you draw a circle around
    the earth, there exist two opposite ends with both the same
    temperature?  No wonder the North pole is as cold as the south
    pole :-) :-).
960.5Translate that into space...AKQJ10::YARBROUGHI prefer PiTue Nov 01 1988 19:3814
This discussion reminds me of a conjecture that was discovered during my 
days as an analyst on the Apollo Project. The problem being attacked was 
that of minimizing the energy required to transfer a satellite from one 
elliptical orbit into another in the same plane; in other words, at what 
point in the orbit do you fire the control rockets to maneuver into the new 
orbit with minimum energy consumed? As I recall, there are always *two*
diametrically opposed points in the orbit with the same minimum. This
appears to be independent of any of the orbital parameters. We were never
able to find an analytic proof, but the concept is I believe still in use
without modification. The interesting thing to me is that the two points
may be at vastly different distances from the mass being orbitted, and the 
speed of the vehicle at those points is quite different.

Lynn Yarbrough 
960.6ATLAST::FRAZERJe suis prest!Tue Nov 01 1988 19:594
Or . . .

A square table with legs the same length can be made not to rock
on an uneven (continuous) floor. 
960.7HPSTEK::XIATue Nov 01 1988 21:0325
    re .5, .6:
    The theorem (as stated in .2) was proved a long time ago (maybe
    50 years ago).  Moreover, the proof is for the general case as stated
    in the following:                                                 
    
    ---------------------------------------------------------------
    Let Sn be the n-sphere, i.e, Sn is the set of all the points
    
          n+1          
    x in R    such that ||x|| = 1 where ||.|| is the Euclidean norm.
    
                 n
    Let f: Sn-->R be a continuous.  Then there exists x in Sn such that:
    
    		f(x) = f(-x)
    
    i.e., there is a pair of antipodal points which is mapped to the same
    point.
    
    Eugene                                              
            
    P.S. The proof, however, is not elemetary.  That is why I did not ask
         for a proof for the general case.  I am just looking for an elementary
         proof of the case stated in .2 because the advanced proof for
         the general case does not offer much intuition.
960.8re .2AITG::DERAMODaniel V. {AITG,ZFC}:: D'EramoTue Nov 01 1988 21:1153
     Now that you mention it, it was temperature and barometric
     pressure, but I guess any pair of continuous functions will
     do.
     
     The problem in .2 is harder than the one in .0 in the
     following sense.  In .0 I used the facts that
     
          the image of a compact set under a continuous function
          is compact
     
          the image of a connected set under a continuous
          function is connected
     
          compact subsets of the real line (of any Hausdorf
          space) are closed and so contain all of their limit
          points
     
          etc.
     
     and no one complained.  Those will be used for .2, but are
     not enough; to really solve the problem requires quoting
     results that are essentially equivalent to it, or else being
     called upon to supply the [long] proofs reducing them to
     more well known results.
     
     Anyway, here goes.  Suppose the result in .2 is false, so
     that there exists a continuous function f:S2 -> R2 such that
     f(x) not= f(-x) for any pair of antipodal points x, -x on
     the sphere.  Let g be the function given by g(x) = f(x) - f(-x).
     Then obviously g never takes on the value (0,0) [no that
     isn't a face, it is an ordered pair of zeroes].  Write g as
     g(x) = (g1(x), g2(x)) and define h by
     
                    g(x)             g1(x)                g2(x)
          h(x) = ---------- = (----------------- , -----------------)
                 || g(x) ||    sqrt(g1^2 + g2^2)   sqrt(g1^2 + g2^2)
     
     Since g1 and g2 are never simultaneously zero [by the
     assumption on f] there will be no division by zero here, and
     so h is well defined.  Since f is continuous and the
     arithmetic operations involved are continuous, both g and h
     are also continuous.  Now, h:S2 -> S1, i.e., h maps the
     sphere into [actually onto] the circle x1^2 + x2^2 = 1.
     Also, h(-x) = -h(x) because of how g and h were chosen.
     
     So far this has shown that if there a continuous f:S2 -> R2
     such that f(x) never equals f(-x), then there must also be a
     continuous function h:S2 -> S1 such that always h(-x) = -h(x).
     
     But it's a little known result that such a function h is
     impossible. :-)
     
     Dan                                  [... to be continued]
960.9If you were a teacher, how would you grade this? :-)AITG::DERAMODaniel V. {AITG,ZFC}:: D'EramoSun Nov 13 1988 01:37105
     re .8,

>>     So far this has shown that if there a continuous f:S2 -> R2
>>     such that f(x) never equals f(-x), then there must also be a
>>     continuous function h:S2 -> S1 such that always h(-x) = -h(x).
>>     
>>     But it's a little known result that such a function h is
>>     impossible. :-)

     The proof of this involves a lot of stuff from topology. 
     Let X and Y be two topological spaces, f:X -> Y and g:X -> Y
     be two continuous functions from X into Y, and let I be the
     unit interval [0,1] of the real line.  The following tries
     to capture the intuitive concept of slowly deforming the
     function f until it becomes the function g.  The functions f
     and g are said to be homotopic if there is a continuous
     function H: X x I -> Y (that's the cross product of X and I)
     such that for all x in X, H(x,0) = f(x) and H(x,1) = g(x).

     A path (or curve) in a topological space Y is defined as a
     continuous function from the unit interval I into Y. 
     Suppose in the above that X is the unit interval, i.e., that
     f and g are paths in Y.  Suppose further that f(0) = g(0) = a
     and f(1) = g(1) = b, i.e., boths functions are paths from the
     same starting point a to the same ending point b.  Let H be
     a homotopy between them as before.  If H also satisfies the
     condition that for every i in I, H(0,i) = a and H(1,i) = b
     (i.e., as H continuously deforms f into g, each
     "intermediate" stage is also a path from a to b), then f and
     g are said to be path homotopic.

     If a = b in the above, i.e., if f(0) = f(1), then the path f
     is called a loop.

     The spaces involved here -- the circle and the surface of a
     sphere -- both have the property that any two points of the
     space can be connected by a path f with f(0) one point and
     f(1) the other.  Such spaces are called path connected.  Now
     let a be a point of such a space and let f be a loop based
     at a.  Let g be the constant function from the unit interval
     I given by g(i) = a for all i in I.  Obviously g is the
     simplest kind of loop possible.  If f and this g are path
     homotopic then that says something very interesting about f,
     that it can be "deformed" into the constant function, or
     stated another way the loop f can be "shrunk to a point."

     If a path connected space has the property that every loop
     based at some point a of the space is path homotopic to the
     constant loop at a, the space is said to be simply
     connected.  [Which point a doesn't matter because the space
     is path connected.]

     Now, the surface of a sphere, S2, is simply connected.  Any
     loop on the surface can be slowly shrunk into a point
     [i.e. into the constant function].  But the circle S1 is not
     simply connected.  For example, the loop f given by

          f(i) = < cos 2 pi i, sin 2 pi i >   for i in [0,1]

     which "goes around the circle once" cannot be cointinuously
     deformed into the constant function given by g(i) = <1, 0>.
     It you go into the proof with enough detail every step can
     be reduced to things out of a first course in topology or
     real analysis.

     The proof that

>>     So far this has shown that if there a continuous f:S2 -> R2
>>     such that f(x) never equals f(-x), then there must also be a
>>     continuous function h:S2 -> S1 such that always h(-x) = -h(x).
>>     
>>     But it's a little known result that such a function h is
>>     impossible. :-)

     essentially comes down to showing that if such a function h
     existed then there would be a path homotopy between two
     loops in the circle that are known not to be path homotopic.

     So let h be such a function.  Let f:I -> S2 be a simple loop
     around the equator of the sphere.  Then g:I -> S1 given by
     g(i) = h(f(i)) is a loop in the circle.  Let x be the point
     f(0) on the (equator of the) sphere, and the simple loop f
     could be such that -x on the sphere is f(1/2), and in
     general f(i + 1/2) = -f(i) for 0 <= i <= 1/2.  So g(0) =
     h(f(0)) = h(x) and g(1/2) = h(f(1/2)) = h(-x) = -h(x).  Here
     is where I will start the handwaving.  The path g considered
     as a function from [0,1/2] has gone around the circle "n + 1/2"
     times for some integer n, and g(i + 1/2) = h(f(i + 1/2)) =
     h(-f(i)) = -h(f(i)) = -g(i).  So the loop g can't "unwind"
     as i goes through [1/2,1]; that part of the path repeats the
     [0,1/2] part of the path except g(i + 1/2) = -g(i) [it's
     across the diameter from g(i)].  So the loop g "goes around
     the circle 2(n + 1/2) = 2n + 1 times" -- and odd number of
     times; such a g cannot be homotopic to the constant loop
     which goes around the circle zero times, an even number.

     But now (set handwave off) let H be a path homotopy between
     the loop f in the sphere and the constant loop at f(0). 
     Then the composition of h and H will be a path homotopy between
     the function g and the constant loop in the circle.  But
     this can't be; the handwavy part shows that g and the
     constant loop are such that the stated-without-proof part
     applies.

     Dan